Feast Days & Sabbaths
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Now!
How many commandments
are contained in the ten commandments? Does that sound like a foolish
question? Then consider the fact that thousands of religious people would
give an answer like "94" or "110." You see, there
is a strange belief on the part of many that the great God-written law
of the ten commandments was actually a part of the ceremonial law of Moses
which contained scores of specific regulations. They do not see the decalogue
as being distinct and totally unique because of its divine authorship.
Neither do they see the clear limitation which the Bible sets for this
moral code by calling it the TEN commandments.
It seems quite obvious that one would effectively do away with the "ten
command-ments" by mingling them with ninety or a hundred others and
calling them "ordinances" instead of commandments. Such a radical
effort has been made to dilute the force of the only words of the Bible
which God wrote with His own hand.
Furthermore, the claim has been advanced that since the ten commandments
were a part of the mosaic law of ordinances which ended at the cross,
we are no more obligated to obey the decalogue than we are to offer lambs
in sacrifice.
Is there proof positive in the Scriptures that there was no such blending
of the cere-monial and moral law into one? Can it be shown that the ten
commandments were of a permanent, perpetual nature while the cere-monial
law of statutes and ordinances came to an end when Jesus died? Indeed
there is abundance of evidence to answer these ques-tions with a resounding
yes!
God made known this distinction to His servant Moses, and Moses explained
it to the people at Mt. Horeb. "And he declared unto you his covenant,
which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote
them upon two tables of stone. And the Lord commanded me at that time
to teach you statutes and judgments, that ye might do them in the land
whither ye go over to possess it" (Deuteronomy 4:13, 14).
Please notice how Moses clearly sepa-rated the ten commandments, which
"he commanded you," from the statutes which "he commanded
me" to give the people. The big question now is whether those statutes
and judgments, which Moses passed on to the people, were designated as
a separate and distinct "law."
God answers that important question in such a way that no doubt can remain.
"Neither will I make the feet of Israel move any more out of the
land which I gave their fathers; only if they will observe to do accord-ing
to all that I have commanded them and according to all the law that my
servant Moses commanded them" (II Kings 21:8). Here we are assured
that the statutes which Moses gave the people were called a "law."
Any child can discern that two different laws are being described. God
speaks of the law "I commanded" and also the "law...Moses
commanded." Unless this truth is under-stood properly, limitless
confusion will result.
Daniel was inspired to make the same careful distinction when he prayed
for the desolated sanctuary of his scattered nation. "Yea, all Israel
have transgressed thy law, even by departing, that they might not obey
thy voice; therefore the curse is poured upon us, and the oath that is
written in the law of Moses the servant of God, because we have sinned
against him" (Daniel 9:11).
Once more we see "thy law" and "the law of Moses,"
and this time the two are recog-nized as different in content. There are
no curses recorded in the ten commandments that God wrote, but the law
which Moses wrote contained an abundance of such curses and judgments.
The major point of difference between the law of God and the law of Moses,
though, lies in the way they were recorded and preserved. We have already
cited Moses' statement that God "wrote them (the ten commandments)
upon two tables of stone" (Deuteronomy 4:13). Compare that with Exodus
31:18, "two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the
finger of God."
No one can confuse this writing with the way the mosaic law was produced.
"And Moses wrote this law...And it came to pass, when Moses had made
an end of writing the words of this law in a book, until they were finished,
That Moses commanded the Levites, which bare the ark of the covenant of
the Lord, saying, Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of
the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for
a witness against thee" (Deuteronomy 31:9, 24-26).
This book of statutes and judgments which Moses wrote in a book was placed
in a pocket on the side of the ark. In contrast, the law written by God
on tables of stone was placed inside the ark of the covenant. "And
thou shalt put into the ark the testimony which I shall give thee"
(Exodus 25:16).
At this point we can note several distinc-tions in the two laws. They
had different authors, were written on different material, were placed
in different locations and had totally different content.
The
Ceremonial Is Against Us
Now let's take a closer
look at the cere-monial ordinances that Moses wrote in the book. They
were to repose in the "side of the ark...for a witness against thee."
It is inter-esting to note that the curses and judgments of this law spelled
out penalties for transgres-sion which were totally missing from the ten
commandments. For this reason, the cere-monial law was considered to be
a law which was "against" them. Even in the New Testament we
read the same descriptive language in reference to that law. "Blotting
out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary
to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross" (Colossians
2:14).
Certainly there was nothing in the ten-commandment law that could be
defined as "contrary" to Paul and the church to whom he was writing.
It was not "against" those early Christians to refrain from
adultery, theft, lying, etc. On the other hand, that moral law was a tremendous
protection to them and favored every interest in their lives. We have
only to read Paul's exalted description of the ten-commandment law to
recognize that those eternal principles were never blotted out or nailed
to the cross. After quoting the tenth commandment of the decalogue in
Romans 7:7, Paul wrote these words, "Wherefore the law is holy, and
the commandment holy, and just, and good" (verse 12). Then he contin-ued
in verse 14, "For we know that the law is spiritual...."
If the ten-commandment law had been blotted out at the cross, would Paul
have spoken in such glowing language of its per-fection and spirituality?
He did not speak of a past law. He said, "the law IS holy...the law
IS spiritual." In other words, it was very much alive and operating
when Paul wrote to the Roman church. In contrast he described the handwriting
of ordinances in the past tense: "WAS against us...WAS contrary to
us." It is certain he was not speaking of the same law. One was present
and one was past.
Interestingly enough, Paul spoke of the fifth commandment as being in
effect when he wrote to the Ephesians. "Children, obey your parents
in the Lord: for this is right. Honour thy father and mother; which is
the first commandment with promise; That it may be well with thee, and
thou mayest live long on the earth" (Ephesians 6:1-3). Again, we
find the great apostle affirming that this commandment "IS,"
not "WAS." Had it been a part of the ordinances described by
the same writer in Colossians, he would have said, "it WAS the first
commandment with promise."
In the New Testament Church there was a lot of contention over the subject
of circum-cision, which was a major requirement of the ceremonial law.
In Acts 15:5 we read, "But there rose up certain of the sect of the
Pharisees which believed, saying, That it was needful to circumcise them,
and to command them to keep the law of Moses."
As all recognize, this could not be refer-ring in any sense to the ten
commandments. They do not even mention circumcision. Yet Paul declared, "Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the
keeping of the commandments of God" (I Corinthians 7:19). If the
law dealing with circumcision was now NOTHING (abolished), then what "commandments" was
he exalting as being still binding? One would have to be blind not to
see two laws here. The moral law remained, while the law of circumcision
(ceremonial law) was abolished.
The truth is that there are numerous refer-ences in the Bible which prove
that the law of types and shadows, because of its temporary application,
was never considered on an equality with the eternal moral law. Its system
of sacrifices, human priesthood and feast days were instituted after sin
entered the world and always pointed forward to the deliverance from sin
which would be wrought through the true Lamb and Priest who was to come-Jesus.
The writer of Hebrews spends much time proving that the law of the Levitical
priest-hood would have to change in order to accommodate the priesthood
of Jesus. He did not spring from the tribe of Levi, but from the tribe
of Judah. Therefore, we have reference to Jesus "Who is made, not
after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless
life" (Hebrews 7:12,16).
This "carnal commandment" dealing with a human priesthood is
found in the hand-written law of Moses. It contrasts sharply with Paul's
description of the ten command-ments as "spiritual" and "holy"
and "good." Nothing could be carnal and spiritual at the same
time. Neither could anything be "good" and "not good"
at the same time. Yet in Ezekiel we read these words: "Because they...had
polluted my sabbaths, and their eyes were after their fathers' idols.
Wherefore I gave them also statutes that were not good, and judgments
whereby they should not live" (Ezekiel 20:24,25). Observe carefully
how the prophet identifies the Sabbath law, and then immediately says,
"I gave them ALSO statutes that were not good." Keep in mind
that the ten commandments were called "holy, and just, and good"
(Romans 7:12). Because of its curses and judgments against their continual
disobedience, the law of Moses was "against" them and was "not
good."
The Moral Law Existed in Eden
The mosaic law is
never equated with the eternal moral code which operated from the very
beginning of human history. Although they were not written down until
Mount Sinai, the ten commandments were under-stood and honored by the
earliest patriarchs. Even Cain knew that it was a sin to kill, because
God told him that "sin lieth at the door" (Genesis 4:7) after
he murdered his brother.
It is impossible for sin to exist where there is no law. The Bible teaches, "for where no law is, there is no transgression" (Romans 4:15).
Again we are told, "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the
law: for sin is the transgression of the law" (I John 3:4). This
principle is amplified further by Paul's statement that "I had not
known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had
said, Thou shalt not covet" (Romans 7:7).
These verses nail down the truth that no sin can be imputed where the
ten-commandment law is not in effect. God's statement to Cain about sin
lying at the door was in refer-ence to his plan to kill Abel, a violation
of one of those commandments. This is absolute proof that the moral law
was in effect at that early date. Later, Joseph revealed that he was
aware
of the binding claims of that same law. He said to Potiphar's wife, "how
then can I do this great wickedness, and sin against God?" (Genesis
39:9). He knew adultery was sin.
Abraham was commended by God in these words: "Because that Abraham
obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my com-mandments, my statutes, and
my laws" (Genesis 26:5). It is very obvious that the law which Abraham
faithfully obeyed was not the law of Moses, because that law was not
given
until 430 years later. And we have just established that the ten commandments
existed before Abraham, condemning even Cain for murder. Neither is it
possible for us to conceive that great, godly Abraham was not acquainted
with the basic issues of right and wrong contained in the ten command-ments.
It is absolutely certain that another law was added 430 years later,
and it was in addi-tion to the one Abraham kept so dili-gently. "And
this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ,
the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul,
that it should make the promise of none effect" (Galatians 3:17).
The context of this verse indicates that Paul is talking about the ceremonial
law rather than the moral law of the ten commandments. In verse 10, he
refers to the curses "which are written in the book of the law." We know
this had to be the mosaic law because, as we have already noted, there
are no curses recorded in the law written on stone.
Can we find further confirmation that this later law was indeed the law
of Moses? The answer rests in Galatians 3:19. "Wherefore then serveth
the law? It was added because of transgressions till the seed should come
to whom the promise was made...." Here we have two significant facts
set forth concerning the law which was added. We are told why it was
given
and also how long it would remain in effect. These two bits of information
will be considered very carefully since they contain compelling evidence
in the case.
FIRST: WHY WAS IT GIVEN? The verse clearly states that it was "added
because of transgressions." This is most revealing because we have
just established that "where no law is, there is no transgression"
(Romans 4:15). One can't be guilty of trans-gressing a law which does
not exist. In this case, one law obviously did exist; and it had been
"transgressed," making it necessary to add another law 430 years
after God's covenant with Abraham. And since it is recorded that "Abraham
obeyed...my laws" (Genesis 26:5), we have to believe that that earlier
law, which Abraham observed, was the ten commandments. Moses had not
yet
been born, and it could not have been his law.
So what must we conclude from this evidence? The ten commandments had
been transgressed, making it necessary to add the ceremonial law. Upon
reflection, this makes a lot of sense. If a law is made forbidding murder,
and it is broken, then another law would have to be enacted to prescribe
the penalty or punishment for breaking that first law. We have already
established that the ten commandments contained no curses (penalties)
or judgments (punishments), but the mosaic law was characterized by those
very things.
SECOND: HOW LONG DID THIS "ADDED" LAW REMAIN IN EFFECT? The
Scripture says, "Till the seed should come." There is no controversy
over the identity of that seed. It is Christ. But do we have evidence
that the law which was blotted out and nailed to the cross was indeed
the law of Moses? Whichever law it was, it is desig-nated as the "handwriting
of ordinances." Nowhere are the ten commandments identi-fied as ordinances.
That term is applied to local legal codes which are very narrow and limited,
such as "town ordinances" which extend only to the city limits.
In comparison, the ten commandments are more like the constitution of
the United States.
What Law Was Blotted Out?
But let's look closer
at that text in Colossians 2:14-16 to get the real picture. After describing
the "blotting out" and "nailing" of the ordinances,
Paul wrote, "Let no man THEREFORE judge you in meat, or in drink."
The word "therefore" means "based on what has just been
said, we must come to this conclusion." In other words, he was saying,
"Based upon the fact that the ordinances have been blotted out, THERE-FORE
let no one judge you in meat or drink."
Now we begin to see clearly which law was under discussion. Is there anything
in the ten commandments about meat and drink? Absolutely nothing. Is there
anything in the ceremonial law about meat and drink? Indeed, much of its
content had to do with prescribing certain meat and drink offerings for
sacri-fices.
But let us read the rest of the text before us: "Let no man therefore
judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the
new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come;
but the body is of Christ" (Colossians 2:16,17).
Question: Could these sabbath days be talking about the seventh-day Sabbath
of the ten-commandment law? No. Because they are clearly defined as "shadows
of things to come." Please keep in mind that the weekly Sabbath was
instituted by God before sin came into the world. THERE COULD NEVER BE
TYPES OR SHADOWS BEFORE SIN EXISTED! All the shadows were introduced
because
of sin and pointed forward to the deliverance from sin through Christ.
For example, all the lambs slain represented Jesus, the true LAMB, who
would die for the sins of the world. If sin had not entered the world,
there would have been no need of a Saviour, and therefore, no lambs or
shadows pointing to a Saviour.
So these "sabbath days which are a shadow" could not possibly
be referring to the seventh-day Sabbath. But what other sabbaths could
they be talking about? Were there "sabbaths" other than the
weekly Sabbaths? Yes, there were yearly sabbaths which had absolutely
nothing to do with the seventh-day Sabbath of the decalogue. And they
were definitely a part of the "ordinance" system which ended
at the cross.
For proof of this, let us go back to the law of Moses and read about
these annual feast days which were shadowy sabbaths. "Speak unto the children
of Israel, saying, In the seventh month, in the first day of the month,
shall ye have a sabbath, a memorial of blowing of trumpets, an holy convocation"
(Leviticus 23:24). Again we read, "Also on the tenth day of this
seventh month there shall be a day of atonement...It shall be unto you
a sabbath of rest" (verses 27,32).
As you can clearly see, these annual sabbaths fell on a different day
of the week every year, and God specifically explained that they were
not to be confused with the weekly Sabbath. "These are the feasts
of the Lord, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, to offer
an offering made by fire unto the Lord, a burnt offering, and a meat offering,
a sacrifice, and drink offer-ings, everything upon his day: BESIDE THE
SABBATHS OF THE LORD" (verses 37,38).
Now we can understand what Paul was referring to in Colossians when he
wrote about meat and drink and sabbath days which are shadows. There
were
certain prescribed offerings for each of those yearly feast days, and
they were shadows pointing to the future sacrifice of Jesus. But the
Bible
says these were "BESIDE THE SABBATHS OF THE LORD," or the seventh-day
Sabbath.
Now it is fully established which law was blotted out and nailed to the
cross. At the moment of Christ's death, the veil of the temple was ripped
from top to bottom by an unseen hand (Matthew 27:51). The most holy place
of the sanctuary was exposed where the sprinkled blood recorded all the
sins of the people. But no more blood needed to be sprinkled; no more
lambs needed to be slain; the true Lamb had come to which all those sacrifices
pointed. From henceforth, it would be a denial of the Saviour to bring
animals. It would be deny-ing that He was the fulfillment of all the
shadows
and types. Therefore, it would be "against us" or "contrary
to us" to continue observing that mosaic law.
To clarify this issue further, let's ask a very simple question or two.
On the day before Jesus died, would it have been a sin for a man to refuse
to bring a lamb in order to have his sins forgiven? The answer, of course,
is yes. It would have been a sin, because that was the only way to be
forgiven. Another question: Would it have been a sin to refuse to bring
that lamb, THE DAY AFTER JESUS DIED? No, because the true Lamb had died,
the veil had been rent, and the ordinances blotted out. A law had been
abolished by being nailed to the cross-the ceremonial law of Moses. Paul
referred to the same law in Ephesians 2:15, "Having abolished in
his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordi-nances...."
Now let's ask another question: On the day before Jesus died, was it a
sin to steal? Undoubtedly it was. On the day after He died, was it a sin
to steal? The answer is yes; it was just as wrong as the day before He
died. Obviously, all the blotting out of ordinances, types and shadows
did not affect the great moral code of the ten command-ments in the slightest
degree-they all applied afterward as much as before Christ died.
There are Christians today who still insist that the yearly sabbaths
should be observed along with the weekly Sabbath. If such is required,
then what
were the sabbath days which were blotted out and nailed to the cross?
And what was the "holyday" mentioned by Paul as being abolished
along with those "sabbath days which were shadows of things to come?"
The Greek word for "holyday" is heorte which is also used to
designate one of the yearly festivals of the Jews: "After this there
was a feast (heorte) of the Jews; and Jesus went up to Jerusalem"
(John 5:1). This is unquestion-ably one of the holy days that Paul spoke
of as being abolished. In contrast, the weekly Sabbath is never referred
to as a "feast," neither is it ever connected to the Jews by
such terms as "sabbath of the Jews." It is only designated as
the "sabbath of the Lord."
It is of more than passing interest that some of the most noted Bible
commentators (including Adam Clarke and Albert Barnes) agree that Paul
is not talking about the ten commandments being abolished at the cross.
Dwight L. Moody, Dr. C. I. Schofield and Billy Graham also strongly affirm
that the law abolished was the ceremonial law.
The
Ten Commandments In Heaven
Perhaps we should
ask right at this point, what is the significance of the tables of God's
law being placed inside the ark of the covenant? Remember that this spot
was the most holy on the earth because it represented God's throne. God
had said, "there I will meet with thee, and I will commune with thee
from above the mercy seat, from between the cherubims" (Exodus 25:22).
Below that shekinah glory, symbolizing the presence of God, lay that
holy
law by which sin was to be defined. And there, as we know from the Scriptures,
Jesus, our High Priest, was to plead His blood for sinners.
The earthly sanctuary was copied by Moses from the pattern in heaven.
All its priestly ministry was a type and shadow of the work of Jesus,
the true High Priest, in the holy and most holy places of the heavenly
sanctuary. "Christ is not entered into the holy places made with
hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now
to appear in the presence of God for us" (Hebrews 9:24). John the
Revelator beheld the original sanc-tuary in heaven where Christ now ministers
as High Priest to make atonement for sin. What is sin? "Sin is the
transgression of the law" (I John 3:4). Which law? John gives the
answer in Revelation 11:19, "the temple of God was opened in heaven,
and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament."
Think of it for a moment! This is the real thing from which all the Old
Testament was patterned. Here is the real Priest, the real mediation,
and IN THE ARK OF THE COVENANT, the real ten commandments. But please
consider this horrendous scenario-IF THE LAW THAT WAS IN THE ARK WAS ABROGATED
AT THE CROSS, CHRIST IS MEDIATING FOR THE TRANSGRESSION OF AN OBSO-LETE
LAW! Keep in mind that John is beholding this heavenly scene years and
years after the cross. It is still there today! In the throne room of
God, over the mercy seat, where His blood is now sprinkled for the blotting
out of sin. Sin is still what it has ever been, and Christ ministers His
blood for sin. No wonder the mercy seat is located just above the broken
law. Remove the ark containing God's law and you remove the foundation
of His throne, His government. You also remove the law by which sin can
be defined and judged. If there be no law, there can be no transgression,
and therefore, no need of an Intercessor or a Saviour.
With the heavenly sanctuary located so definitely in the throne room
of God over the ark containing the ten commandments, there is not a shred
of evidence remaining against the validity of that law. The truth is
that
all men will be judged on the basis of that eternal code which forms
the foundation of God's government. James wrote, "For whosoever shall
keep the whole law and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For
he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou
commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of
the law. So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law
of liberty" (James 2:10-12).
Do not by any means miss the tremen-dous truths contained in these verses.
This is the law we will be judged by! Which law is it? James leaves no
room for doubt. He quotes two of the ten commandments. But notice how
he defines this law as a complete unit in itself. He states that we are
responsi-ble for keeping "the whole law." How many commandments
are contained in "the whole law"? Exactly ten! What do we become
if we break any one of the ten? "A transgressor of the law,"
James answers. And that is what sin is called in the Bible. "Sin
is the trans-gression of the law" (I John 3:4).
Why did Jesus come? "Thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall
save his people from their sins" (Matthew 1:21). Notice that Jesus
came to save us from breaking the law, but "if any man sin, we have
an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous" (I John
2:1). Here we have a picture of our High Priest, our Advocate, interceding
with His own blood in the heavenly sanctuary before the Father's throne
in behalf of those who break His law. Where is the throne located? Over
the ark of the covenant containing the law by which James says all "shall
be judged."
Is there any validity to the argument that the ten commandments were
all abolished at the cross, and then nine of them restored in the New
Testament?
This is a specious invention to attempt evasion of the fourth commandment.
No Christian has ever found fault with nine of the commandments. Why
would
they want to get rid of the fourth? Obviously because they are breaking
it and do not want to believe that they stand condemned by it. Can they
annul the entire decalogue, and then reinstate nine of them? We have
proven
already that only the mosaic law was annulled-not the ten command-ments.
Further, James has declared that the whole of that law is binding, and
breaking any one of them is sin. How can anybody extract the fourth commandment
from the ten commandments and still call it a "whole law"?
Incidentally, the Sabbath is mentioned in the New Testament more than
any of the other nine. This could be tied to the fact that God has apparently
chosen the fourth commandment to be the great test issue in His law.
In
Exodus 16 He used the seventh-day Sabbath to "prove them, whether
they will walk in my law, or no" (Exodus 16:4).
Is there reason to believe that the Sabbath contains a testing quality
that cannot be found in any of the other nine commandments? It is an
interesting
question to contemplate. Besides being worded in a totally different
manner ("remember" instead of "thou shalt not"), the fourth
commandment is the one which does not have a stigma attached to breaking
it. One might abstain from stealing for fear of going to jail, and from
adultery for fear of getting shot by an angry spouse. In fact, it is
illegal
to break some of the ten commandments, so they might be obeyed simply
to avoid the negative consequences of disobedience. BUT CONSIDER THIS:
IN OUR WORLD TODAY, THE FOURTH COMMANDMENT ACTUALLY CARRIES A STIGMA
FOR
KEEPING IT! In fact, the only reason one would choose to obey it is out
of love for Christ and choosing His will above our own. There-fore, it
would constitute a special test of genuine love for Christ.
Proof that the Sabbath
Remains
Although there is
a wealth of proof that the ten-commandment law and the Sabbath were confirmed
by an obedient New Testa-ment Church, I would like to focus on one area
of evidence that is often overlooked or misinterpreted. We find it in
Hebrews 4, and it probably constitutes the most convincing single reference
in favor of Sabbathkeeping to be found in the Bible.
As a little background, we need to examine the thrust of the whole book
of Hebrews. The writer of this letter is showing how many of the elements
of the old covenant have been taken away. We can almost feel the anguish
of the Hebrew believers as Paul explains to them how the sacrificial system
has been taken away, having been fulfilled in Christ. The Levitical priesthood
has been removed, being replaced by Christ our High Priest. Were they
waiting fearfully to hear him take away the Sabbath also? If so, they
must have been tremendously relieved when he wrote these words, "There
remaineth therefore a 'keeping of the sabbath' (see margin) to the people
of God" (Hebrews 4:9). I am using the marginal reading of the King
James Version because that is the exact, literal meaning of the original
statement.
The context of Hebrews three and four does not indicate that Paul was
trying to convince the Hebrew Christians which day to keep holy. They
already knew that. His great burden was for them to enter into a spiritual
relationship with Christ-to have an experi-ence of rest from the works
of sin. He proved that the children of Israel did not find that true rest
because of their lack of faith and disobedience in the wilderness. Although
the Greek word for rest, KATAPAUSIS, means simply "cessation from
work," the context seems to indicate that the author is talking primarily
about finding a spiritual rest in their experience.
Nevertheless, the two chapters definitely tie the spiritual rest to the
seventh-day Sabbathkeeping initiated and commanded by God in the beginning.
Otherwise, we would not find in verse 4 a direct quote from Genesis 2:2.
"For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise,
And God did rest the seventh day from all his works" (Hebrews 4:4).
The reason for citing God's resting on the Sabbath from His work of creation
is revealed only when we analyze verses 9 and 10. Paul says that what
remains for God's people is not KATAPAUSIS (a spiritual rest), but SABBATISMAS,
meaning a literal keeping of the Sabbath. Then in verse 10 we find the
real key which proves beyond a question that the SABBATISMAS rest was
not spiritual only, but a cessation from physi-cal work. "For he
that is entered into his rest (KATAPAUSIS-spiritual rest), he ALSO (in
addition to the spiritual rest) hath ceased from his own works, AS GOD
DID FROM HIS."
The big question about this verse focuses on the works which one ceases
from. Are they works of sin? Are they works to obtain salvation? Or are
they the physical works from which we cease on the Sabbath? The answer
is plainly revealed by the phrase "AS GOD DID FROM HIS." Go
back to verse four and we begin to understand why this quote from Genesis
is included in Paul's discourse. It is necessary to establish which works
God did rest from. God ceased from His physical work of creation on the
seventh day, and we are admonished to cease from ours, as He did from
His. He did not just enter into a spiritual rest on the seventh day or
we might conclude that He was not at spiritual rest on the first six days.
The fact is that God is always at spiritual rest. Neither did He have
any works of sin or the flesh to cease from. He simply rested on the seventh
day from His work of creation, and we are being told by Paul that the
ones who truly have received the spiritual rest of salvation will ALSO
cease from their physical works on the Sabbath, AS GOD DID FROM HIS.
Don't you see how this lends a tremen-dous new spiritual dimension to
the keeping of the Sabbath? It memorializes our personal salvation experience.
It stands as a blessed weekly reminder of the continual rest from sin
that we may have through Christ. No wonder the Sabbath "remains"
for the people of God! Our Creator has made it a symbol of the sweetest
spiritual blessings available to the human family.
We can understand why God did this when we pause to think how Sabbathkeeping
parallels the salvation experience. What really makes something holy?
In Isaiah 58:13 God calls the Sabbath "my holy day" and "a
delight." Listen! It is the presence of God in something which makes
it holy. (Remember the burning bush?) God's presence is in the Sabbath
just as His presence is also manifest in the life of a genuine Christian.
So why should not true Sabbathkeeping be made a memorial of true salvation
in Christ?
It is no happenstance that the same Hebrew word, CHASID, is used in Isaiah
58:13 to describe the Sabbath ("my HOLY day") and also in Leviticus
19:2 to describe God's people ("Ye shall be HOLY"). He dwells
in the Sabbath, and He dwells in His people as a sanctifying influence,
hence both are called "holy." This is why God made the Sabbath,
from the beginning, a sign of sanc-tification. "Moreover also I gave
them my sabbaths, to be a sign between me and them, that they might know
that I am the Lord that sanctify them" (Ezekiel 20:12). The New International
Version says, "so they would know that I the Lord made them holy."
Lest someone raise the stale argument that the Sabbath is only a sign
of holiness for the Jews, let me hasten to add this inspired text: "if
ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the
promise" (Galatians 3:29). All born-again Christians are the true
Israel today, and have been sanctified unto God. Therefore, the Sabbath
is for them.
This sign of sanctification has been reaffirmed in the New Testament by
Paul's dramatic statement in Hebrews 4:9,10 that the keeping of the Sabbath
remains for God's people. Because we have entered into His spiritual rest
of salvation ("Be ye holy"), he declares that we should ALSO
rest from our works, "AS GOD DID FROM HIS" ("my holy day").
Someone might suggest that after we enter into spiritual rest there would
be no need to observe the memorial of it by keeping the Sabbath physically.
But if that were true, we would have to also stop practicing water baptism.
Immersion memorializes our death to the old man of sin. We experience
that conversion BEFORE entering the water to be baptized. If the physical
observance is unnecessary just because we have had the spiritual symbolism
fulfilled in us, then we should abandon the physical custom.
Further, we would have to renounce the practice of celebrating the Lord's
Supper. It also memorializes an experience of the heart in receiving the
sacrifice of our Lord by faith. But should we give up the physical obser-vance
of the communion just because we have already entered into the spiritual
joy of what it
represents? Of course not! Then why should anyone suggest that the Sabbath
not be observed physically just because it is used as a memorial of union
with Christ? Paul says that it REMAINS as a Sabbath rest for the people
of God.
In their monumental Commentary On the Whole Bible, Jamieson, Fausset and
Brown make this comment on Hebrews 4:9, "This verse indirectly establishes
the obliga-tion of the Sabbath still" (page 449). It is most interesting
that these Sundaykeeping theological scholars, with the highest of linguistic
credentials, make such a statement. Yet the relationship of the spiritual
rest of salvation and the physical Sabbathkeeping is undeniable in the
context.
So how can we summarize our discoveries about the two laws? Surely it
has been established that the ten commandments were in a different category
than the temporary mosaic law of ordinances. That moral code, encased
in the ark of testimony, like the rest of the wilderness sanctuary, was
a copy of the true pattern in heaven. So we affirm that it not only was
repeated and reinforced in the New Testament but was identified in John's
vision beneath the mercy seat in the heavenly sanctuary, from which Christ
ministers His own blood for the transgression of that holy law. From that
foundational position, it continues to be the basis for Christ's interces-sory
ministry for us in the throne room of heaven. Therefore, it is established
as the most unmovable and unchangeable of all God's decrees.
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